Six Sigma Black Belt MCQs
Six Sigma Black Belt MCQs
These Six Sigma Black Belt multiple-choice questions and their answers will help you strengthen your grip on the subject of Six Sigma Black Belt. You can prepare for an upcoming exam or job interview with these 70+ Six Sigma Black Belt MCQs.
So scroll down and start answering.
1: What is mode?
A. The average of the mean and median
B. Then mid point of a distribution
C. The arithmetic balance point of a distribution
D. The most frequently occuring data point in a set of observations
2: The over-arching intent of a Six Sigma analysis is to:
A. Reduce variation to be within the customer's specification limits, and to center the process mean to align with the customer's target.
B. Reduce variation to be within the customer's specification limits.
C. Eliminate all forms of waste (defects, waiting, over production, etc.)
D. Center the process mean to align with the customer's target.
3: Which of the following reflects the meaning of the word “Poka –Yoke�
A. With defects
B. Expensive
C. Low Quality
D. Mistake Proof
4: When would Cp equal Cpk in a capability index calculation?
A. When Cp=pp
B. When the process is perfectly centered
C. When the standard deviation is less than 1
D. When the specification limits are wide
5: What does a diamond symbol signify in a Process Map
A. Repair Station
B. Ending
C. Beginning
D. Decision
6: When the mean of the process is outside the customer specification limits the value of Cpk will be:
A. 2
B. Negative
C. 0.5
D. 1
7: Measuring a process' performance against that of a best-in-class peer or competitor, and then using the findings to identify opportunities to improve, is defined as what?
A. Contol charting
B. Benchmarking
C. Six Sigma improvement
D. Control defining
8: Which of the following are potential benefits of Process Mapping?
A. To give all team members a single, common view of the entire process
B. To reveal unnecessary, complex, and redundant steps in a process.
C. (All of these)
D. To compare the actual process, and all its variations, against the ideal process
9: When considering the "rule of thumb" that 20% of the inputs result in 80% of the outputs, what graphical tool is effective for prioritizing Critical X's?
A. Skew Chart
B. Control Chart
C. Pareto Chart
D. Bar Chart
10: Team empowerment derives from: A. The organizational management B. Access to organizational information C. Access granted to organizational resources
A. B and C
B. C
C. A
D. A, B, and C
E. A and C
11: Which of the following is an INAPPROPRiate application of a Pareto chart?
A. A critically weighted ranking of categories
B. An alphabetic based ranking of categories
C. A financially weighted ranking of categories
D. A frequency based ranking of categories
12: A team has been asked to improve the small purchase process in a firm. They decide to create a flow chart of the existing process because it will:
A. Visualize the process
B. Identify wastes
C. Rank costs
D. Prioritize delays
E. Improve takt time
13: Which quality innovator formulated the cause and effect diagram?
A. Juran
B. Ishikawa
C. Deming
D. Okinawa
14: The surface appearance of a refrigerator is not satisfactory. This statement is the outcome of what analysis/evaluation?
A. Range chart analysis
B. Variable Measurement
C. Attribute Measurement
D. Mean chart analysis
15: Six Sigma is a managerial approach designed to create processes resulting in at most how many defects?
A. 3.4 defects per million opportunities
B. 0.34 defects per million opportunities
C. 340 defects per million opportunities
D. 34 defects per million opportunities
16: What first step should six sigma projects begin with?
A. Charter
B. Analyze
C. Define
D. Initiation
17: What does SIPOC stand for?
A. Suppliers, Inputs, Procedure, Outputs, Customers
B. Suppliers, Inputs, Process, Outputs, Customers
C. Simple, Inputs, Procedure, Outputs, Constructs
D. Systems Inputs, Process, Outputs, Complex
18: In an estimated Rolled Throughput Yield (RTY) equation, what is the Defects per Unit (DPU) threshold limit?
A. <30%
B. <20%
C. <15%
D. <10%
19: The objective of Design of Experiments (DOE) is to:
A. Map all process steps and determine their average duration
B. Determine the mean and standard deviation of a population
C. Find the right settings for key process input variables, to optimize process performance
D. Establish the best graphing method to illustrate process performance
20: Why are variable control chart subgroup sizes generally 3, 4, 5, or 6? A: Larger subgroup sizes would permit an opportunity for process changes with the subgroup. B: They easily fit on traditional chart paper C: They are large enough so that averages of data will follow the normal distribution D: They permit a separation of within time from time-to-time variation
A. C
B. A, C, and D
C. D
D. A
E. B and C
21: The mentor for a Green Belt exam should be at least be designated what?
A. Master Black Belt
B. Black Belt
C. Champion
D. Green Belt
22: TPM efforts attempt to minimize six big losses. Which of the following would NOT be included:
A. Equipment failure
B. Reduced yields
C. Employee absenteeism
D. Setup and adjustment
23: The proportion of units that go through a process for the first time without defect is called:
A. the first pass inspection
B. the KPI
C. the first pass yield
D. the success yield
24: Excessive conflict within a work team: A: Has a positive effect on creating alternate solutions B: Most often results in lose-lose situations C: Has a negative effect on team members and should be avoided
A. A, B, and C
B. A
C. C
D. A and B
E. B and C
25: What does the total area beneath a normal curve equate to?
A. 1
B. 1.5
C. 0.5
D. 2
26: Callaway makes golf clubs. Which of the following is not considered one of Callaways internal customers?
A. Packaging
B. Distribution
C. Marketing
D. Retail Store
27: When implementing Statistical Process Control which of the following would be considered undesirable?
A. The lower control limit for the R chart is 0
B. The process is already in statistical control
C. The SPC is used for tracking transaction times at a warehouse
D. The control limits are wider than customer specification limits
28: Which of the following tools is used to translate broad requirements to specific requirements:
A. Process chart
B. Data chart
C. Critical to Quality (CTQ) tree
D. Quality Control Plan
29: Which of the following techniques is most suitable to collect requirements at the earliest stages of designing a process or a product
A. FTA
B. QFD
C. FMEA
D. Muka
30: What is the F distribution used for?
A. To review errors
B. To analyze data
C. To study the equality of two means
D. To study the equality of two variances
31: When used together for variables data, which of the following pair of quantities is the most useful in preparing controls charts?
A. X-bar and R
B. t-test, chi-square
C. AQL, p-bar
D. p, n
E. R, sigma
32: How is the risk priority number in a FMEA exercise derived?
A. severity x risk x detection
B. severity x occurrence x risk
C. severity x occurrence x detection
D. occurrence x detection x control
33: The distribution of the average of n samples will follow which distribution as n becomes large?
A. Exponential
B. Normal
C. Poisson
D. Lognormal
34: The QFD process can be described as:
A. Technical results driven process
B. A customer driven process
C. Parametric approach
D. Customer competitive assessment
E. Financial metrics approach
35: The tendency for highly cohesive groups to lose their critical evaluative capabilities is:
A. Groupthink
B. Cognition
C. Nominal Group Technique
D. Human Needs
E. The Skinner Box
36: Which of the following methods model the effect of two or more inputs on an output variable?
A. Linear Regression
B. XY Diagram
C. Multivariate regression
D. Correlation coefficient
37: Cpk can be done only if KS Test p-value is greater than
A. 1
B. 0.025
C. 0.05
D. 0.5
E. 0.02
38: What is the most logical reason for using short run SPC charts?
A. There is limited data
B. There is a need to simplify the process
C. There is a need to plot multiple variables per chart
D. There is limited operator time
39: Which of the following is not the preserve of a "Project Champion"
A. Defines Projects
B. Helps recruit team members/obtains resources
C. Provides technical six sigma expertise
D. Breaks down roadblocks
40: My company operates at a yield of 68.27%, At what sigmal level is my company operating at?
A. 5 sigma
B. 2 sigma
C. 3 sigma
D. 1 sigma
41: What six sigma technique is used to quantify the amount of error in a measurement system?
A. Process Capability
B. Poisson Test
C. Standard Deviation
D. Gage R&R
42: Which of the following represents how variance is computed?
A. Average of median and mean
B. Average deviation of values from the mean of a data distribution
C. Average squared deviation of each individual data point from the mean
D. Difference between maximum and minimum value of a set of data points
43: A Six Sigma Black Belt would be responsible for all of the following except:
A. Line management of improved processes, post-implementation
B. Training organisation staff in six sigma techniques and team work
C. Use analytics tools to identify root causes of problems
D. Applying Kaizen thinking to drive continuous improvement
44: The following objective is relevant to which Phase of a DMAIC Six Sigma Project: To identify the process and Critical to Quality (CTQ) parameters which will be improved, using Voice of the Customer (VOC), Quality Function Deployment (QFD), Pareto Chart, etc.
A. Measure
B. Analyze
C. Improve
D. Define
45: Which of the following devices are associated with the visual factory
A. Andon boards
B. Standard work instructions
C. Work cells
D. Queue times
46: The following objectives are relevant to which Phase of a DMAIC Six Sigma Project: * Identify the measurable Y metric that will be improved. * Define a defect from the customer’s perspective * Ensure that you can trust the measurement of the Y
A. Analyze
B. Improve
C. Define
D. Measure
47: A process resulting in 99% accuracy to customer specifications, is equivalent to what Sigma level (Process Capability)?
A. 4 Sigma
B. 5 Sigma
C. 3.8 Sigma
D. 6 Sigma
48: Why is acceptance sampling conducted?
A. To remove bad parts from the sample
B. To estimate whether or not the quality of the parts is acceptable
C. To estimate if the entire lot is of acceptable quality
D. To determine if every part in the lot needs to be tested or not
49: Subgroups are used in which types of SPC charts?
A. nU charts
B. MR Charts
C. Xbar charts
D. Z Charts
50: What does 5 sigma represent in defects per million opportunities (DPMO)?
A. 3.4 defects per million opportunities
B. 233 defects per million opportunities
C. 6,210 defects per million opportunities
D. 66,810 defects per million opportunities
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