Defenses MCQs

Defenses MCQs

The following Defenses MCQs have been compiled by our experts through research, in order to test your knowledge of the subject of Defenses. We encourage you to answer these 100+ multiple-choice questions to assess your proficiency.
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1: The reasonable doubt standard is the highest burden of proof in the law.

A.   True

B.   False

2: In some jurisdictions, the defendant also has the burden of persuasion.

A.   True

B.   False

3: The insanity defense is a classic excuse defense.

A.   True

B.   False

4: A person who is attacked with nondeadly force cannot use deadly force to defend him or herself.

A.   True

B.   False

5: Fifteen states impose a duty to retreat before using deadly force.

A.   True

B.   False

6: Less than half of the states do not impose a duty to retreat and permit an individual to stand his or her ground and defend him or herself.

A.   True

B.   False

7: The George Zimmerman case took place in Florid

A.   True

B.   False

8: Colorado does not permit a shoot first law?

A.   True

B.   False

9: Hawaii does not have shoot first law.

A.   True

B.   False

10: ______ is a common stereotype.

A.   Blacks are good athletes

B.   Mexicans are poor

C.   Asians are smart

D.   All of these

11: Women who suffer from BWS are beaten by their patterns, but eventually leave the relationship.

A.   True

B.   False

12: Many women who kill their partners are often diagnosed with which condition?

A.   Post-traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

B.   Battered Women’s Syndrome (BWS)

C.   Premenstrual Symptoms (PMS)

D.   Postpartum Depression (PPD)

13: Defense of habitation laws permit the use of deadly force to protect a home or dwelling are sometimes called

A.   True

B.   False

14: Deadly force is always permitted to prevent a misdemeanor.

A.   True

B.   False

15: The defense of necessity is also called the choice of goo

A.   True

B.   False

16: In justification defences, the actor is justified in taking action that would otherwise be deemed criminal.

A.   True

B.   False

17: Which of the following are examples of excuse defenses?

A.   Infancy

B.   Insanity

C.   Cultural

D.   Syndrome

E.   All of these

18: All states recognize the insanity defense.

A.   True

B.   False

19: If the defendant is incompetent is will still stand trial.

A.   True

B.   False

20: When the defendant becomes competent, the court proceedings resume.

A.   True

B.   False

21: Jared Lee Loughner killed and injured various people at which of the following grocery stores?

A.   Albertsons

B.   Safeway

C.   Gelsons

D.   Vons

22: Which of the following representatives suffered critical injuries after being shot by Jared Lee Loughner?

A.   Karen Bass

B.   Gabrielle Giffords

C.   Kathy Castor

D.   Loretta Sanchez

23: There are multiple tests for determining insanity.

A.   True

B.   False

24: The earliest test for insanity was established in France.

A.   True

B.   False

25: Daniel M’Naghten’s verdict was thrown out and eventually found not guilty.

A.   True

B.   False

26: The M’Naghten test was known in American courts as the right–wrong test.

A.   True

B.   False

27: The American Law Institute Model Penal Code test replaced the Product Test in 1972?

A.   True

B.   False

28: After 1982 the burden of proving insanity shifted to the jury.

A.   True

B.   False

29: Which of the following standards is used by the majority of the states?

A.   M’Naghten

B.   Model Penal Code

C.   Durham

D.   M’Naghten with irresistible impulse provision

30: All states have a bifurcated process.

A.   True

B.   False

31: The juvenile justice system focuses on punishment.

A.   True

B.   False

32: All states have laws that permit children to be tried as adults.

A.   True

B.   False

33: If an officer shoots and kills an armed felon who poses a threat, what type of defense is the homicide?

A.   Excused

B.   Entrapment

C.   Justified

D.   Duress

34: The term burden of proof comprises which of the following two intertwined concepts.

A.   Burdens of discovery and normalcy

B.   Burdens of persuasion and production

C.   Burdens of prosecution and defense

D.   Burdens of expert and lay witnesses

35: ______ defense means the defendant could not have been at the scene of the crime because she can prove she was somewhere else.

A.   Consent

B.   Self-defense

C.   Necessity

D.   Alibi

36: The criteria courts examine before the government may legally medicate a defendant against his will includes all of the following EXCEPT______.

A.   The defendant is charged with a misdemeanor

B.   The drugs are medically appropriate for the illness

C.   The drugs will restore the defendant to competency

D.   The side effects will not impair the right to a fair trial

37: It is illegal to execute someone who was under what age at the time they committed first-degree murder?

A.   15

B.   16

C.   17

D.   18

38: To successfully raise a duress defense, the victim must have had______.

A.   A good friend to confide in about the extent of the threatened harm

B.   No reasonable opportunity to escape other than commit the crime

C.   Taken every opportunity to escape the harm by committing the crime

D.   A history of arrests for nonviolent financial crimes with victims

39: The term “mental disease or defect” includes all of the following EXCEPT______.

A.   Any mental abnormality

B.   Congenital mental condition

C.   Abnormal sexual conduct

D.   Traumatic mental condition

40: The term intellectually disabled was formerly known as______.

A.   Mental retardation

B.   Mental abnormality

C.   Deviant cognition

D.   Traumatized condition

41: In Texas, courts had measured intellectual disability to determine if a defendant was exempt from the death penalty with reference to the character Lennie from which notable novel?

A.   For Whom the Bell Tolls by Edgar Poe

B.   In Cold Blood by Truman Capote

C.   To Kill a Mockingbird by Harper Lee

D.   Of Mice and Men by John Steinbeck

42: Self-defense is premised upon the triggering factor that the victim was confronted with a(n) ______.

A.   Immediate physical threat

B.   Insanity-producing violence

C.   Delayed physical threat

D.   Overwhelming sense of fear

43: Battering and its effects can be illustrated by a Power and Control wheel that may include behaviors EXCEPT______.

A.   Using coercion and threats

B.   A calming honeymoon phase

C.   Using intimidation and isolation

D.   Minimizing, denying, and blaming

44: The defense of entrapment cannot be raised unless the following actor is involved: ______.

A.   The grand jury

B.   The judge

C.   The government

D.   The prosecutor

45: Showing the defendant could “appreciate the criminality of his conduct” is one way the government can overcome the defenses of infancy, insanity, and ALI substantial capacity tests.

A.   True

B.   False

46: An irrebutable presumption is irrefutable and cannot be overcome by additional evidence.

A.   True

B.   False

47: An individual may use deadly force to protect his or her empty home, consistent with the philosophy that “a man’s home is his castle.”

A.   True

B.   False

48: _____ is defined as a defense involving the defendant presenting evidence in support of a particular defense after the prosecution has rested its case.

A.   Affirmative defense

B.   Theft

C.   Whistleblowers

D.   None of these

49: _____ is known as a condition suffered by many women who are in abusive relationships. After enduring repeated, unpredictable beatings, these women develop a belief that it would be hopeless to try to escape their situation and remain in the relationships.

A.   None of these

B.   First Amendment

C.   Battered woman syndrome

D.   Specific

50: Is defense of habitation a defense that permit the use of deadly force to protect a home or dwelling. Unlike self-defense, the threat need not be imminent or proportionate?

A.   False

B.   True