Juvenile Justice and Corrections MCQs
Juvenile Justice and Corrections MCQs
Our experts have gathered these Juvenile Justice and Corrections MCQs through research, and we hope that you will be able to see how much knowledge base you have for the subject of Juvenile Justice and Corrections by answering these 40 multiple-choice questions.
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1: One of the most common models for the treatment of adolescents in a group home setting is the ______.
A. Homebuilders program
B. Teaching-family model
C. Boot camp
D. Family preservation model
2: Which theory is based on multisystemic therapy?
A. Behavior modification
B. Systems theory
C. Freud’s psychoanalytic model
D. Kohlberg’s theory of moral development
3: The term juvenile detention refers to ______.
A. Temporary placement in a secure or nonsecure setting
B. Rehabilitation in a secure facility
C. Outpatient rehabilitation
D. Adjudication as a delinquent
4: The Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention Act was passed by Congress in the year ______.
A. 1960
B. 1965
C. 1969
D. 1974
5: A major disadvantage of secure treatment for adolescents is the ______.
A. Lack of a controlled environment
B. Frequency of staff abuse
C. Emphasis on the medical model of care
D. The tendency of adolescents to align with one another and reinforce deviant behaviors
6: According to the biological/neurological perspective on violence, ______.
A. The violent behavior of some juveniles is caused by neurological deficits
B. Social factors are irrelevant to the development of violent behavior
C. Some children and adolescents are predisposed to violent behavior due to their unique biological and/or neurological makeup
D. Children with biological deficits should be medicated as young as age three in order to prevent later aggressive behavior
7: Which statement about the relationship between sexual victimization and sexual abuse is correct?
A. Children who are sexually abused frequently become adult perpetrators of sexual abuse.
B. Many juvenile sex offenders were sexually abused as children.
C. Boys are more likely than girls to be both victims and perpetrators of sexual abuse.
D. The repression of childhood sexual abuse often results in violent crime in later years.
8: Psychologists conducting a juvenile sex offender evaluation for courts or correctional officials should be prepared to answer not only whether the juvenile is a good candidate for treatment but also whether the juvenile is likely to reoffend.
A. True
B. False
9: The preferred method of treatment for juvenile sex offenders involves ______.
A. Peer groups
B. Drugs to reduce libido
C. Psychoactive drugs to treat psychosis
D. Drama therapy
10: Which treatment model involves skill streaming, anger control training, and moral reasoning?
A. Cognitive behavioral therapy
B. Psychoeducational treatment
C. Relapse prevention
D. Aggression replacement training
11: Which offense is often considered a violent offense according to juvenile crime statistics?
A. Substance abuse
B. Shoplifting
C. Running away
D. Vandalism
12: In Kent v. United States (1966), the Supreme Court held that a judge must hold a hearing before transferring a juvenile to adult court.
A. True
B. False
13: Research shows that most juveniles understand their Miranda rights.
A. True
B. False
14: Detention is a type of juvenile rehabilitation program.
A. True
B. False
15: A primary goal of multisystemic therapy involves helping juveniles break bonds with ______ and develop bonds with ______.
A. Teachers; parents
B. Perpetrators; victims
C. Antisocial peers; prosocial peers
D. Peers; family members
16: _____ is known as in the juvenile justice system, this term is the equivalent of parole.
A. aftercare
B. Validated
C. None of these
D. Typological
17: Is aggression replacement training (ART) treatment program for aggressive children and adolescents consisting of skillstreaming (teaching a broad range of prosocial behaviors), anger control training, and moral reasoning?
A. True
B. False
18: _____ is refers to the extent to which an offender, particularly a juvenile, is likely to benefit from programs or services available within an institutional or community setting.
A. In jails; in prisons
B. In state prisons; in federal prisons
C. amenability to rehabilitation
D. None of these
19: Is biological/neurological perspective the research perspective that biological, genetic, or neuropsychological factors make a significant contribution to aggression?
A. True
B. False
20: _____ is in the juvenile justice system, this refers to giving juveniles a mix of juvenile and adult sanctions, such as a juvenile treatment program followed by adult parole supervision once the juvenile has reached adulthood.
A. Child molestation that is committed while the perpetrator is intoxicated
B. respondent
C. blended sentencing
D. All of these
21: _____ is defined as ability to make decisions in one’s own best interest. Research indicates that juveniles—given their stage of development—are unlikely to have the emotional sophistication and maturity to make such decisions when confronted with the criminal justice process.
A. All of these
B. Honeymoon phase
C. decisional competency
D. Acute battering incident phase
22: _____ is known as mandate from the JJDPA that states receiving funds for juvenile justice programs must remove all juveniles from adult jails and must also remove status offenders from secure institutions.
A. Adolescent misbehavior
B. All of these
C. Normal personality traits
D. Deinstitutionalization of status offenders (DSO)
23: Is delinquency petition in juvenile courts, the prosecutor’s document charging a juvenile with an offense that, if proven, would qualify the juvenile as a delinquent?
A. False
B. True
24: _____ is the equivalent of a criminal trial in adult courts. Juveniles have constitutional rights similar to adult offenders, including rights to an attorney, to confront and cross-examine their accusers, and to not testify against themselves. They do not have a constitutional right to a jury or to an open proceeding, though some states grant these rights.
A. All of these
B. Delinquency hearing (or adjudicatory hearing)
C. Validated
D. Typological
25: _____ is defined as the resolution of a legal matter. In criminal law, an example would be the sentence a defendant receives. In civil law, the disposition of a case may be a judgment in favor of the plaintiff. In juvenile law, a disposition is the equivalent of a criminal sentence.
A. Assessment
B. disposition
C. None of these
D. Application
26: _____ is known as the observation that racial and ethnic minorities are disproportionately detained and incarcerated.
A. Tender years doctrine
B. Disproportionate minority confinement (DMC)
C. critical incidents
D. All of these
27: Is diversion any one of a number of programs used to steer someone away from formal or traditional court processing, such as diversion of juveniles to a substance abuse program or diversion of some defendants to mental health courts?
A. True
B. False
28: _____ is approaches that try to prevent youth with minor behavioral problems and their family from becoming more dysfunctional. The major intention is to keep the family unit together, presuming that this is in the best interest of the family as a whole.
A. Emphasis on the medical model of care
B. family preservation models
C. Lack of a controlled environment
D. None of these
29: _____ is defined as developed in the 1970s for behaviorally disturbed adolescents whose parents were unable to control their acting-out behaviors. It combines social learning, cognitive-behavioral, interpersonal, and family systems theories.
A. Sexually violent predator (SVP)
B. Psychosocial assessment
C. None of these
D. Functional family therapy (FFT)
30: _____ is known as family preservation approach that tries to keep antisocial children in their homes and offers highly intensive services to the family for a short period of time.
A. All of these
B. homebuilders model
C. Restitution
D. Restoration
31: Is houses of refuge institutional settings presumably intended to protect, nurture, and educate neglected or wayward children during the mid-19th century?
A. False
B. True
32: _____ is in juvenile law, this is the youth’s first official contact with the juvenile court system; the intake officer often has discretion to warn the youth, refer the youth for prosecution, or divert the youth to community services.
A. All of these
B. intake
C. Confirmation bias
D. False confidence
33: _____ is defined as the process by which a judge transfers a juvenile’s case to criminal court.
A. judicial waivers
B. Reinforcement for good behavior
C. Anger management
D. None of these
34: _____ is known as temporary secure or nonsecure placement pending adjudication or during adjudication proceedings, up to a final disposition.
A. None of these
B. School
C. juvenile detention
D. Forensic
35: Is juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention Act (JJDPA) landmark federal legislation passed in 1974 that attempted to address the needs of juveniles in the juvenile justice system as well as those considered at risk for delinquency?
A. True
B. False
36: Is legislative waiver, statutory exclusion, or waiver by statute terms used for the automatic processing of juveniles in criminal courts, typically for serious crimes. Many states, for example, require by statute that juveniles 14 and above who are charged with murder be tried in criminal courts. In some jurisdictions, criminal court judges have the authority to transfer the juvenile to juvenile court?
A. False
B. True
37: _____ is multisite study of adjudicative competence in juveniles.
A. All of these
B. Child sexual abuse accommodation syndrome (CSAAS)
C. MacArthur Juvenile Competence Study
D. Narcissistic offender
38: _____ is defined as treatment model developed specifically with chronic offenders in the child welfare system.
A. Multidimensional Treatment Foster Care (MTFC)
B. Tender years doctrine
C. questioned document examination or analysis
D. None of these
39: _____ is known as a community treatment approach for serious juvenile offenders that focuses on the family while being responsive to the many other contexts surrounding the family, such as the peer group, the neighborhood, and the school.
A. Cognitive dissonance
B. Multisystemic therapy (MST)
C. False confidence
D. All of these
40: Is office of Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention (OJJDP) the federal agency charged with overseeing juvenile justice on the national level, providing grants for juvenile research and programs, and taking a leadership role in setting policies nationwide relative to juveniles?
A. False
B. True
41: _____ is the doctrine in law that establishes the right of the state to substitute its presumably benevolent decision making for that of individuals who are thought to be unable or unwilling to make their own decisions. Applied particularly in cases involving children, juveniles, mentally disordered individuals, and intellectually disabled people.
A. All of these
B. parens patriae
C. Tension-building phase
D. Dysphoric/borderline phase
42: _____ is defined as the term used when defendants are jailed before trial specifically because they might flee or are considered too dangerous for pretrial release. Preventive detention for juveniles can be used if they are at risk of committing more crime, not necessarily violent crime.
A. Authoritarian
B. preventive detention
C. violence
D. All of these
43: _____ is known as provision that gives prosecutors the authority to decide whether the case will be taken to juvenile court or criminal court.
A. Positive psychology
B. None of these
C. Risk/needs/responsivity
D. prosecutorial waiver
44: Is teaching-family model a model used particularly in group homes for delinquents or for children at risk. It includes adults playing the role of “parent,” encouraging youth to be socialized in a healthy family context?
A. False
B. True
45: _____ is an official request to the court that a juvenile’s case be transferred to criminal court, or transferred from criminal court to juvenile court.
A. A digital investigative analyst
B. A questioned document analyst
C. waiver petition
D. All of these
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Juvenile Justice and Corrections MCQs
