Psychology of Sexual Assault MCQs
Psychology of Sexual Assault MCQs
Answer these 40 Psychology of Sexual Assault MCQs and assess your grip on the subject of Psychology of Sexual Assault.
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1: Research suggests that, as a group, rapists tend to be ______.
A. Socially skillful and charming
B. Deficient in social and interpersonal skills
C. Older than the usual offender
D. Intelligent and well educated
2: The NIBRS includes all of the following information except ______.
A. Demographic information on victims
B. Level of victim injury
C. Conviction data
D. Victim–offender relationship
3: The opportunistic offender Type 1 rapist manifests impulsivity in ______, whereas the Type 2 rapist demonstrates impulsivity in ______.
A. Adulthood; adolescence
B. Adolescence; adulthood
C. Infancy; childhood
D. Childhood; infancy
4: Sex-pressure offenders and sex-force offenders are two types of ______ in the ______ typology.
A. Child molesters; MTC
B. Rapists; MTC
C. Child molesters; Groth
D. Rapists; Groth
5: The MTC:R3 classifies major types of rapists based on ______.
A. Primary motivation
B. Level of violence
C. Perpetrator’s gender
D. Mental disorder
6: All of the following are variables of the MTC:R3 except ______.
A. Social competence
B. Aggression
C. Masochism
D. Sexual fantasies
7: Extremely violent aggression intended to hurt, humiliate, or degrade a victim is referred to as ______.
A. Instrumental aggression
B. Sadism
C. Masochism
D. Expressive aggression
8: The UCR divides sexual offending into the two categories of ______.
A. Aggravated assault and sexual assault
B. Male rape and female rape
C. Non-forcible assault and physical force
D. Forcible rape and sexual offenses
9: The Groth typology views rape as a(n) ______ act.
A. Subliminal
B. Pseudosexual
C. Opportunistic
D. Sexual
10: According to the MTC:CM3 classification, which type of child molester would be most likely to cause serious injuries to the victim?
A. Interpersonal offender
B. Narcissistic offender
C. Muted thoughtful offender
D. Sadistic offender
11: Research on female sex offenders has found that the majority of female sex offenders are ______.
A. Female sexual predators
B. Young adult child exploiters
C. Homosexual criminals
D. Heterosexual nurturers
12: The act of having sexual relations with a consenting adult female under fraudulent conditions is called rape by ______.
A. Misrepresentation
B. Fraud
C. Proxy
D. Fruition
13: Much of the research on date rape is focused on ______.
A. Juvenile sex offenders
B. White males
C. College students
D. Female inmates
14: Research on female sex offenders has been increasing in recent years.
A. True
B. False
15: Online child sexual predators are typically violent and sadistic offenders who display inadequate interpersonal skills.
A. True
B. False
16: Is anger rape a rape situation, identified by Groth, in which an offender uses more force than necessary for compliance and engages in a variety of sexual acts that are particularly degrading or humiliating to the victim?
A. False
B. True
17: _____ is a sexual assault that occurs within the context of a dating or social relationship.
A. MacArthur Competency Assessment Tool–Criminal Adjudication (MacCAT-CA)
B. Dual relationships between psychologist and client
C. date or acquaintance rape
D. None of these
18: _____ is defined as terminology used by the FBI to refer to rape without consent. Distinguished from statutory rape, which involves an underage victim who was not forced, but who is believed to be unable to consent because of age.
A. All of these
B. Child
C. Parent
D. forcible rape
19: _____ is known as pertains to a strategy of sex offenders who use various methods to ingratiate themselves to their targeted victim, usually a child or adolescent.
A. grooming
B. Sexual fantasies
C. All of these
D. Social competence
20: Is groth child molester typology clinically developed system to classify pedophiles?
A. True
B. False
21: _____ is clinically developed system to classify rapists.
A. Inclusive
B. All of these
C. Divisive
D. groth rape typology
22: _____ is defined as type of child molester who never developed satisfactory sexual relationships with other adults.
A. immature or fixated child molester
B. The victim’s family
C. None of these
D. The prosecutor
23: _____ is known as sexual abuse of adolescents or children by immediate family or relatives.
A. High poverty rates
B. competency to stand trial
C. All of these
D. incest
24: Is mtc:cm3 empirically based classification system for pedophiles that underscores the importance of viewing pedophilia as characterized by multiple behavioral patterns and intentions?
A. True
B. False
25: _____ is rape typology consisting of nine discrete rapist types that are differentiated on the basis of six variables.
A. mtc:r3
B. Decrease one’s fear of victimization
C. All of these
D. Discourage one from using violence to achieve goals
26: _____ is defined as a government survey that attempts to measure the extent to which households, individuals, and commercial establishments are victims of serious crime.
A. All of these
B. National Crime Victimization Survey (NCVS)
C. A positive attitude
D. Positive social skills
27: _____ is known as those who engage in a sexual attack because of an intense sexual arousal prompted by specific stimuli identified in the intended victim. Although rape is always a violent act, the perpetrator’s aggression is not considered the significant feature in the attack.
A. Mediator
B. Non-sadistic rapists
C. Consultant
D. All of these
28: Is opportunistic rapist one who engages in sexual assault simply because the opportunity to rape presents itself?
A. False
B. True
29: Is paraphilia the clinical term for various psychological conditions that are exhibited in fantasies, urges, or behaviors involving nonhuman objects, suffering or humiliation of oneself or one’s partner, or children or other nonconsenting persons. The paraphilias are not considered mental disorders unless they involve behaviors that are harmful to the individual or others?
A. False
B. True
30: _____ is clinical term for sexual attraction to children. However, it may or may not result in actual child molestation or other sexual abuse.
A. Quality of the officer’s marital relationship.
B. All of these
C. pedophilia
D. The circumstances surrounding the shooting
31: _____ is defined as this rapist demonstrates a predominance of global and undifferentiated anger that pervades all areas of his life.
A. pervasively angry rapist
B. Juvenile sex offenders
C. None of these
D. College students
32: _____ is known as a rape situation described by Groth in which the assailant seeks to establish power and control over his victim. The amount of force used depends on the degree of submission shown by the victim.
A. Extent of intimate partner violence
B. Power rape
C. Psychological characteristics of batterers
D. All of these
33: Is psychosexual evaluations assessment of sex offenders not only to decide on a treatment plan, but also to gauge their likelihood of further offending?
A. True
B. False
34: _____ is a form of sexual assault characterized by force or threat of force that involves penetration. See also, statutory rape and sexual assault.
A. Wieter v. Settle
B. None of these
C. rape
D. Holland v. Sampson
35: _____ is defined as the act of having sexual relations with a supposedly consenting adult female under fraudulent conditions, such as when a physician or psychotherapist has sexual intercourse with a patient under the guise of effective treatment.
A. None of these
B. rape by fraud
C. Nomothetic interaction
D. Shyness
36: _____ is known as a variety of mistaken beliefs about the crime of rape and its victims held by many men and women.
A. It must last for at least 3 months
B. rape myths
C. It is a common reaction to a highly disturbing, traumatic event
D. All of these
37: Is recidivism a return to criminal activity (usually measured by arrest) after being convicted of a criminal offense?
A. False
B. True
38: _____ is the child molester who is attracted to and victimizes children after experiencing sexual relationships with adults. Compare with fixated child molester.
A. All of these
B. regressed child molester
C. Civil damages
D. Personal injury damages
39: _____ is defined as a rape situation, identified by Groth, in which the offender experiences sexual arousal and excitement as a result of the victim’s torment, distress, helplessness, and suffering. The assault usually involves bondage and torture.
A. sadistic rape
B. All of these
C. Stage ten
D. Stage five
40: _____ is known as the broad term to cover a range of sexual offenses, not limited to rape; a term now preferred in many statutes and in research literature.
A. None of these
B. BIC standard
C. sexual assault
D. clinical predictions
41: Is sexual masochism refers to sexual arousal in response to being humiliated, beaten, whipped, bound, or otherwise made to suffer?
A. True
B. False
42: _____ is sexual arousal gained from inflicting real or simulated physical pain or psychological suffering on another person.
A. Cognitive dissonance
B. None of these
C. sexual sadism
D. False confidence
43: _____ is defined as characterized by the presence of protracted sexual or sadistic fantasies that strongly influence the assaults.
A. sexually motivated rapist
B. Compared to adult psychopaths, juvenile psychopaths express sincere remorse for their crime(s).
C. Juvenile psychopaths are unable to control their violent behavior.
D. None of these
44: _____ is known as rape for which the age of the victim is the crucial distinction, with the premise that a victim below a certain age (usually 16) cannot validly consent to sexual intercourse with an adult.
A. statutory rape
B. suspect-based profiling
C. Quality of the officer’s marital relationship.
D. All of these
45: Is vindictive rapist offender who uses the act of rape to harm, humiliate, and degrade his victims?
A. False
B. True
46: _____ is the tendency to gain sexual excitement and gratification from observing unsuspecting others who are naked, undressing, or engaging in sexual activity.
A. Teacher abduction
B. voyeurism
C. All of these
D. Parental abduction
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Psychology of Sexual Assault MCQs
