Psychology of Investigations MCQs

Psychology of Investigations MCQs

Answer these 60 Psychology of Investigations MCQs and see how sharp is your knowledge of Psychology of Investigations.
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1: All of the following are categories of profiling except ______.

A.   Crime scene profiling

B.   Confirmation profiling

C.   Geographic profiling

D.   Suspect-based profiling

2: According to Canter and Alison (2000), three fundamental psychological questions characterize all criminal investigations. Which of the following is one of these questions?

A.   How can the victim be profiled?

B.   What type of punishment is the offender likely to receive?

C.   What actions did the victim take that caused the crime?

D.   Are there any other crimes that are likely to have been committed by the same person?

3: Which type of profiling is associated with Rossmo’s hunting patterns theory?

A.   Confirmation profiling

B.   Crime scene profiling

C.   Psychological autopsy

D.   Geographical profiling

4: Racial profiling is an example of psychological profiling.

A.   True

B.   False

5: Compared to typical forensic interrogations, HUMINT interrogations are ______.

A.   Conducted by a team

B.   Conducted by one individual

C.   Illegal in most states

D.   Illegal in all states

6: The predominant method of interrogation used in the United States is called ______.

A.   The Reid method

B.   The Kassin model

C.   Confrontational confession

D.   Rational interviewing

7: A case study is an example of a(n) ______ approach.

A.   Nomothetic

B.   Predictive

C.   Idiographic

D.   Geographical

8: An equivocal death analysis is also called a psychological autopsy.

A.   True

B.   False

9: If a confession is to be used as evidence, it must be freely and voluntarily given.

A.   True

B.   False

10: Psychological profiling refers to gathering data on ______ individuals utilizing ______.

A.   Known; tests and interviews

B.   Intelligent; hunches and theories

C.   Disordered; record review and legal evidence

D.   Institutionalized; arrest reports and clues

11: Sarah is quiet and reserved in her kindergarten class yet chatty and outgoing at home. Sarah’s behavior indicates a lack of ______.

A.   Trans-situational consistency

B.   Shyness

C.   Confirmation

D.   Nomothetic interaction

12: The preference to have one’s views confirmed is referred to as ______.

A.   Factual competency

B.   False confidence

C.   Confirmation bias

D.   Cognitive dissonance

13: Polygraphs are mostly used in ______.

A.   Criminal cases involving violence

B.   Personnel screening in government agencies

C.   Selection of graduate school applicants at major universities

D.   Early stages of criminal investigations

14: Which statement about interrogation of juveniles is correct?

A.   Recent research has revealed that interrogators are easier on adolescents than they are on adults.

B.   Adolescents are often better equipped than adults to withstand the pressures of interrogation.

C.   Recent research suggests that adolescents are more focused on future consequences than are adults.

D.   Adolescents are prone to give false confessions due to their immaturity.

15: An identification procedure in which neither the witness nor the person administering the lineup knows the true suspect is called a ______.

A.   Photospread

B.   Double-blind lineup

C.   Show-up

D.   Composite sketch

16: _____ is in police interrogation, an aggressive questioning procedure that assumes the suspect is responsible for a criminal offense and has the goal of obtaining a confession. Compare with information-gathering approach.

A.   accusatorial approach

B.   Physician

C.   Child

D.   None of these

A.   True

B.   False

18: _____ is predictions of behavior (e.g., violence) that are based primarily on clinical knowledge rather than on statistical or actuarial data. Compare with actuarial predictions and structured professional judgment (SPJ).

A.   None of these

B.   Tender years doctrine

C.   BIC standard

D.   clinical predictions

19: _____ is defined as these occur when innocent persons—who are tired, confused, and highly psycho­logically vulnerable—come to believe that they actually committed the crime.

A.   All of these

B.   Self-defense

C.   Financial gain

D.   Coerced-internalized false confessions

20: _____ is known as admissions of guilt most likely to occur after prolonged and intense interrogation experiences, such as when sleep deprivation is a feature. The suspect, in desperation to avoid further discomfort, admits to the crime even knowing that he or she is innocent.

A.   None of these

B.   Coerced-compliant false confessions

C.   How can the victim be profiled?

D.   What actions did the victim take that caused the crime?

21: Is cognitive interview (CI) method of interviewing that uses memory retrieval and various communication techniques aimed at increasing the amount of accurate information from witnesses and victims. Its goal is to make the interviewee aware of all events that happened in a situation?

A.   True

B.   False

22: _____ is method of interviewing and inter­rogation that asks questions the suspect does not anticipate.

A.   Crime scene profiling

B.   None of these

C.   Suspect-based profiling

D.   Cognitive lie detection

23: Is cognitive load during police interviewing and interrogation, this refers to the cognitive demands placed on the interviewee, with the premise that this will make it more difficult for the interviewee to be deceptive. An example would be asking the person to recount events of the past day in reverse order of when they occurred?

A.   False

B.   True

A.   All of these

B.   The circumstances surrounding the shooting

C.   Cognitive-behavioral viewpoint

D.   Quality of the officer’s marital relationship.

25: _____ is defined as the phenomenon that once a witness commits to a certain viewpoint, such as identification of a face, the witness is less likely to change his or her mind.

A.   None of these

B.   General jurisdiction

C.   Appellate jurisdiction

D.   commitment bias

26: _____ is known as characteristic of a police lineup that unfairly encourages a witness to identify the suspect in custody (e.g., no lineup members approximate the suspect’s age).

A.   Guilty of the crime

B.   composition bias

C.   All of these

D.   Open to rehabilitation

27: Is confirmation bias the tendency to look for evidence that confirms one’s preexisting expectations or beliefs?

A.   False

B.   True

28: _____ is the most preferred procedure by professional polygraphers in cases requiring the inves­tigation of specific incidents, such as criminal acts. Compare with Guilty Knowledge Test.

A.   Crime and delinquency

B.   Victimology and victim services

C.   All of these

D.   Control question technique (CQT)

29: _____ is defined as the development of a rough behavioral or psychological sketch of an offender based on clues identified at the crime scene.

A.   crime scene profiling

B.   Minor children

C.   Incarcerated women

D.   All of these

30: _____ is known as a broad term for the investigation of crime. May or may not include crime scene profiling.

A.   criminal investigative analysis

B.   Be unemployed

C.   None of these

D.   Be unmarried

31: Is differential experience hypothesis states that individuals will have greater familiarity or experience with members of their own race and will thus—in identification procedures—be better able to discern differences among members of their own race?

A.   False

B.   True

32: _____ is a lineup procedure in which neither the person making an identification nor the person administering the lineup knows the identity of the suspect.

A.   All of these

B.   Forensic

C.   double-blind lineup

D.   Cognitive

33: _____ is defined as reconstruction of the personality profile and cognitive features (especially intentions) of deceased persons when the cause of death is not clear. Also called psychological autopsy.

A.   Equivocal death analysis (EDA)

B.   All of these

C.   Homebuilders program

D.   Teaching-family model

34: _____ is known as computerized or artist drawings of faces from information supplied by witnesses.

A.   diplomate

B.   Racial oppression

C.   facial composites

D.   None of these

35: Is false confessions admissions of guilt that are not valid and are often but not necessarily induced by coercive interrogation procedures?

A.   True

B.   False

36: _____ is concerned with analyzing the spatial patterns of crimes committed by numerous offenders over a period of time.

A.   geographical mapping

B.   Political activists

C.   Prisoners

D.   All of these

37: _____ is defined as focuses on the location of the crime and how it relates to the residence or base of operations of the offender. Assumes that serial offenders prefer to commit their crimes near their own residences.

A.   None of these

B.   Different types of antisocial behavior

C.   Violent behavior in adult male forensic populations

D.   geographical profiling

38: _____ is known as a polygraph test that assesses the extent to which the polygraph examinee is aware of facts about a crime. See also control question technique (CQT). The GKT is pre­ferred by researchers, but is used less often by practicing polygraphers than the CQT.

A.   Guilty Knowledge Test (GKT)

B.   The International Association of Forensic Psychologists

C.   None of these

D.   The Law and Psychiatry Association

39: Is hypnotic hypermnesia the enhancement or revival of memory through hypnosis?

A.   False

B.   True

40: _____ is the perspective that hypnosis represents a special state of consciousness that promotes a high level of responsiveness to suggestion and changes in bodily feelings.

A.   Stranger abduction

B.   Parental abduction

C.   hypnotic trance theory

D.   None of these

41: _____ is defined as effec­tive method of interrogation designed to acquire knowledge for intel­ligence and national security purposes.

A.   Early adulthood

B.   HUMINT (HUManINTelligence) interrogation

C.   All of these

D.   Middle adulthood

42: _____ is known as searching for general principles which can be applied to large groups by intense study of one individual. The detailed case study of one person illustrates an idiographic approach. Compare with nomothetic approach.

A.   Juvenile sex offenders

B.   None of these

C.   idiographic approach

D.   Mental health providers

43: Is information-gathering approach a method of police interviewing and interrogation that does not presume guilt on the part of the person being questioned, but rather seeks to obtain information about events surrounding a crime. Compare with accusatorial approach?

A.   True

B.   False

44: _____ is umbrella term that refers to a scientific approach designed to improve our understanding of criminal behavior and the investigative process.

A.   All of these

B.   Perpetrators; victims

C.   investigative psychology

D.   Teachers; parents

45: _____ is defined as an investigative method that looks at similarities between crimes and attempts to connect them to the same offender.

A.   linkage analysis

B.   All of these

C.   Are there any other crimes that are likely to have been committed by the same person?

D.   How can the victim be profiled?

46: _____ is known as actions and procedures an offender uses to commit a crime successfully.

A.   Modus operandi (MO)

B.   Bench

C.   Disposition

D.   None of these

47: Is nomothetic approach refers to the search for general principles, relationships, and patterns by examining and combining data from many individuals. Compare with idiographic approach?

A.   True

B.   False

48: _____ is enhancement or recovery of memory through non-hypnotic methods, such as free association, fantasy, and recall techniques.

A.   Relapse prevention

B.   All of these

C.   Cognitive behavioral therapy

D.   non-hypnotic hypermnesia

49: _____ is defined as the tendency of people to be able to discriminate between faces of their own race better than those of other races.

A.   None of these

B.   Homebuilders program

C.   Own-race bias (ORB)

D.   Teaching-family model

50: _____ is known as primarily undertaken in an effort to make a reasonable determination of what may have been in the mind of the deceased person leading up to and at the time of death—particularly if the death appears to be a suicide.

A.   All of these

B.   Psychological autopsy

C.   Photospread

D.   Double-blind lineup